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(Model Test Paper) PG Medical Entrance Examination Model Paper For (Surgery)

Posted January 27th, 2009 by guru

Test Paper :  PG Medical Entrance Examination Model Paper For (Surgery)

Question 1: A patient presented with a 3.5 cms size lymph node enlargement, which was hard and presented in submandibular region. Examination of the head and neck did not yield any lesion. The next investigation to be done


    1. CXR
    2. Triple endoscopy
    3. Supravital staining of oral mucosa
    4. Laryngoscopy
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 2: A 50-year old male. Working as a hotel cook, has four dependent family members. He has been diagnosed with an early stage squamous cell cancer of anal canal. He has more than 60% chances of cure. The best treatment option is

    1. Abdomino-perineal resection
    2. Combined surgery and radiotherapy
    3. Combined chemotherapy and radiotherapy
    4. Chemotherapy alone
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 3: A patient on same evening after thyroidectomy has swelling and difficulty breathing. Next step of management will be

    1. Open immediatly
    2. Intubate oro tracheally
    3. Wait and watch
    4. Oxygen by mask
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 4: Most common cause of aneurysm of abdominal aorta is

    1. Trauma
    2. Atherosclerosis
    3. Syphilis
    4. Cysitic medial necrosis
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 5: Post cricoid carcinoma of the oesophagus are best treated by

    1. Radiotherapy
    2. Total oesophagectomy
    3. Pharyngolaryngectomy with gastric transposition
    4. Intubation through growth
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 6: Pitutary regoin can be best viewed by

    1. Plain AP view
    2. Caldwell
    3. Townes
    4. Basal view
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 7: Isotope selectively concentrated in abscess cavities

    1. Gallium
    2. Technitium
    3. Selenium
    4. Chromium
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 8: Neural tube defects occur during gestational age

    1. 18-22 days
    2. 26-30 days
    3. 22-26 days
    4. 30-34 days
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 9: The muscle pair which rotates radius without flexion and extension at arm is

    1. Pronator quadratus and pronator teres
    2. Supinator and Anconeus
    3. Bachioradialis and brachialis
    4. Triceps and Biceps brachii
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 10: A lady presents with a history of fracture radius, which was put on plaster of paris cast for 4 weeks. After that she developed swelling of hands with shiny skin.What is the most likely diagnosis

    1. Rupture of extensor policis longus tendon
    2. Myositis ossificans
    3. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy
    4. Malunion
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 11: The Hunterian Ligature operation is performed for

    1. Varicose veins
    2. Arteriovenous fistulae
    3. Aneurysm
    4. Acute ischemia
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 12: The most common malignancy after cholecystectomy is of

    1. Colon
    2. Stomach
    3. Pancreas
    4. Ileum
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 13: All the following indicates early gastric cancer except

    1. Involvement of mucosa
    2. Involvement of mucosa and submucosa
    3. Involvement of mucosa, submucosa and muscularis
    4. Involvement of mucosa, submucosa and adjacent lymph nodes
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 14: Trans-cranial Doppler Ultrasonography(TCD) uses all of the following windows except

    1. Trans-temporal
    2. Trans-orbital
    3. Foramen magnum
    4. Trans-frontal
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 15: In a motor vehicle accident the seat belt leads to following EXPECTED

    1. Reduced incidence of severe thoracic injury
    2. Occurrence of small intestine and mesenteric injury
    3. Increased severity of decelerating head injury
    4. Trauma to major intra abdominal
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 16: After appendicectomy, fecal fistula may be due to

    1. Crohn’s disease
    2. Ulcerative colitis
    3. TB
    4. Amebic colitis
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 17: In a patient having heavy dense bones, penetration is best achieved by

    1. Increase in mA
    2. Increase in kVp
    3. Increased exposure time
    4. Increased developing time
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 18: Which type of hypospadias does not need any treatment

    1. Galndular
    2. Coronal
    3. Penile
    4. Peno-scrotal
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 19: On her third of hospitalization, a 70 year old woman who is being treated for acute cholecystitis develops increased pain and tenderness in the right upper quadrant with a palpable mass. Her temperature rises to 104 F and her BP falls to 80/60.Heametamesis and malena ensue and petechiae are noted. Laboratory studies reveal thrombocytopenia, prolonged PT, and decreased fibrinogen level. The most important step in the correction of this patients coagulopathy

    1. Administration of heparin
    2. Administration of fresh frozen plasma
    3. Administration of Epsilon amino caproic acid
    4. Exploratory laparotomy
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 20: The treatment modality of achalasia which has the maximum probability of causing a recurrence is

    1. Pneumatic dilatation
    2. Laparoscopic myotomy
    3. Botulinum toxin
    4. Open surgical myotomy
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 21: All the following are correct about radiological evaluation of a patient with Cushing’s syndrome except

    1. Adrenal CT scan distinguishes adrenal cortical hyperplasia from an adrenal tumor
    2. CT of sella tursica is diagnostic when a pituitary tumor is present
    3. MRI of the adrenals may distinguish adrenal adenoma from carcinoma
    4. Petrosal sinus sampling is the best way to distinguish tumor from an ectopic ACTH producing tumor
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 22: Most physiological treatment of duodenal ulcer is

    1. Highly selective vagotomy
    2. Antrectomy
    3. Vagotomy & gastrojejunostomy
    4. Gastrojejunostomy
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 23: A 30 year old male was brought to the casualty following a road traffic accident. His physical examination revealed that his right lower limb was short, internally rotated, and flexed and adducted at the hip. The most likely diagnosis is

    1. Posterior dislocation of hip
    2. Central Fracture dislocation of hip
    3. Trochanteric fracture
    4. Fracture neck of femur
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 24: Incontinence in urinary tract infection is

    1. False
    2. True
    3. Stress
    4. Urge
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 25: Inversion injury of foot is associated with damage to all the following except

    1. 1. Lateral malleolus
    2. Base of 5th metatarsal bone
    3. Sustentaculum tali
    4. Extensor digitorum brevis
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 26: A man aged 60 yrs has h/o IHD and atherosclerosis. He presents with abdominal pain and maroon stools, likely diagnosis is

    1. Acute intestinal obstruction
    2. Acute mesenteric ischemia
    3. Peritonitis
    4. Appendicitis
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 27: An anterolateral corodotomy relieving pain in right leg is effective because it interrupts the:

    1. Left dorsal column
    2. Left ventral spinothalmic tract
    3. Left lateral spinothalmic tract
    4. Right lateral spinothalmic tract
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 28: Thickness of stomach in ultrasound is

    1. 2mm
    2. 5mm
    3. 7mm
    4. 10mm
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 29: A 27 year old man presents with a left testicular tumor with a 10 cm retroperitoneal lymph node mass. The treatment of choice is

    1. Radiotherapy
    2. Immunotherapy with interferon and interleukins
    3. Left high inguinal orchiectomy plus chemotherapy
    4. Chemotherapy alone
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 30: Sympathectomy is indicated in all the following conditions except

    1. Ischaemic ulcers
    2. Anhidrosis
    3. Intermittent claudication
    4. Acrocyanosis
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 31: Most common cause of acute pancreatitis is

    1. Gall stone
    2. Alcohol
    3. Trauma
    4. Cyst
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 32: True intracavernous aneurysms present with

    1. Ophthalmological problems
    2. Headache
    3. Nasal intonation of voice
    4. Vomiting
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 33: Littre’s hernia includes

    1. Meckel’s diverticulum
    2. Intestinal margins
    3. Umblicus
    4. Omentum
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 34: The commonest site for congenital “Arachnoid cyst” is

    1. Sylvian fissure
    2. Cerebello-pontine angle
    3. Cerebello-pontine angle
    4. Cerebellar vermis
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 35: A post thyroidectomy patient presents with tingling and perioral paresthesia. Serum calcium level was 7 mg/dL. Which of the following is the best line of management

    1. Oral vitamin D3
    2. Oral vitamin D3 with calcium
    3. I.V.calcium gluconate
    4. Observation
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 36: In which of the following conditions is paradoxical respiration observed

    1. Stove-in chest
    2. Flail chest
    3. Pneumothorax
    4. Haemopneumothorax
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 37: Which one of the following radio-isotopes is commonly used as a source for external beam radiotherapy in the treatment of cancer patients

    1. Strontium-89
    2. Radium-226
    3. Cobalt-59
    4. Cobalt-60
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 38: Shepherd crook deformity is seen in

    1. Osteopetrosis
    2. Fibrous dysplasia
    3. Rheumatoid arthritis
    4. Osteoarthritis
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 39: Fraying and cupping of metaphyses of long bones in an child does not occur in

    1. Rickets
    2. Lead poisoning
    3. Metaphyseal dysplasia
    4. Hypophosphatasia
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 40: “CSF Rhinorrhoea” may occur because of all except

    1. Trauma
    2. Chronically Raised Intracranial pressure
    3. Acoustic tumor
    4. Pituitary surgery
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 41: Osteomyelitis is common in

    1. Frontal sinus
    2. Ethmoid sinus
    3. Sphenoid sinus
    4. Maxillary sinus
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 42: Chemotherapy against tubercular meningitis may be started on the basis of all except

    1. Radiological criteria for tubercular meningitis
    2. CSF culture positivity for tuberculosis
    3. CSF positivity for PCR and ELISA
    4. CSF positivity for PCR and ELISA
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 43: Loss of 90% of ileum and jejunum causes all of the following except

    1. Anemia
    2. Osteomalacia
    3. Fluid loss
    4. Hypoprotienemias
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 44: During surgical exploration for hydatid cyst of the liver , any of the following agents can be used as scolicidal agent EXCEPT

    1. Hypertonic sodium chloride
    2. Formalin
    3. Cetrimide
    4. Povidone Iodine
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 45: Sciatic nerve palsy may occur in the following injury:

    1. Posterior dislocation of hip joint
    2. Anterior dislocation of hip
    3. Trochanteric fracture
    4. Fracture neck of femur
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 46: A patient is having benign prostatic hyperplasia. He is having a blood pressure of 180/110mmHg and a serum Creatinine of 3.5. Which of the following drugs is not to be used to treat him

    1. Prazocin
    2. Enlapril
    3. Amlodipine
    4. Metoprolol
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 47: In a case of blunt trauma, in shock, not responding to IV crystalloids, next step will be

    1. Immediate laparotomy
    2. Blood transfusion
    3. Albumin transfusion
    4. Abdominal compression
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 48: The first Laparoscopy was done by

    1. Using a vaginal speculum introduced through the fornix
    2. Using a cystoscope through a subumbilical incision
    3. Using a hollow reed through a subumbilical incision
    4. None of the above
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 49: A patient presents with features suggestive of chronic pancreatitis. ERCP examination showed "chain of Lakes" appearance. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient

    1. Side to side pancreatico jejunostomy
    2. Distal pancreatic resection and end to side anastomosis
    3. Whipple's resection
    4. Sphincterotomy
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 50: Most common surgical complication of typhoid is

    1. Perforation of ulcer
    2. Cholecystitis
    3. Hernia
    4. Peritonitis
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 51: Trans-cranial Doppler Ultrasonography(TCD) uses all of the following windows except

    1. Trans-temporal
    2. Trans-orbital
    3. Foramen magnum
    4. Trans-frontal
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 52: The best treatment for cystic hygroma is

    1. Surgical excision
    2. Radiotherapy
    3. Sclerotherapy
    4. Chemotherapy
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 53: Pipe stem appearance in barium enema is seen in

    1. Crohns disease
    2. Ulcerative colitis
    3. Schistosomiasis
    4. Carcinoma colon
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 54: Epithelium of Barret’s mucosa is

    1. Ciliated columnar
    2. Columnar
    3. Stratified squamous
    4. Squamous
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 55: Diastomatomyelia is due to

    1. Gap in the spinal cord
    2. Spur in the spinal cord
    3. Both of the above
    4. None of the above
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 56: Steeple sign is seen in

    1. Croup
    2. Acute epiglottitis
    3. Laryngomalacia
    4. Quinsy
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 57: The substances present in the gall bladder stones or the kidney stoens can be best identified by the following technique

    1. Fluorescence spectroscopy
    2. Electron microscopy.
    3. Nuclear magnetic resonance
    4. X-ray diffraction
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 58: Which one of the following emits gamma rays

    1. Caesium
    2. Strontium
    3. Technetium
    4. Iodine
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 59: Lunate bone osteoarthritis is called as

    1. Kohler’s
    2. Keinbock
    3. Freeburg
    4. Perthes
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 60: “Subclavian Steal Syndrome” indicates reversal of blood flow in

    1. Subclavian artery
    2. Internal carotid artery
    3. Vertebral artery
    4. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 61: An edentulous patient has carcinoma of the oral cavity infiltrating into the alveolar margin. Which of the following would not be indicated in managing the case

    1. Segmental mandibulectomy
    2. Marginal mandibulectomy with removal of the outer table
    3. Marginal mandibulectomy with removal of upper half of mandible
    4. Radiotherapy
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 62: CT scan of a patient with history of head injury shows a biconvex hyperdense lesion displacing the grey-white matter interface. The most likely diagnosis is

    1. Subdural hematoma
    2. Diffuse axonal injury
    3. Extradural hematoma
    4. Hemorrhagic contusion
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 63: A patient had an accident and sustained fracture of his femur. 48 hours later, he developed tachypnea, disorientation and conjunctival petechiae. The diagnosis is most likely to be

    1. Hypovolumia
    2. Air embolism
    3. Fat embolism
    4. Hyponatremia
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 64: A posteriorly perforating ulcer in the pyloric antrum of the stomach is most likely to produce initial localized peritonitis or abscess formation the following

    1. Omental bursa [lesser sac].
    2. Greater sac.
    3. Right subphrenic space
    4. Hepatorenal space [ pouch of Morison].
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 65: Bowel does not get strangulated in which of the following

    1. Recto uterine pouch
    2. Omental bursa
    3. Ileo-colic recess
    4. Para duodenal and peritoneal recess
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 66: The most common type of esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula is

    1. Side to side
    2. Proximal
    3. Distal end to trachea
    4. Proximal and distal end to trachea
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 67: A patient presents with a pancreatic pseudocyst 5cm in size, 3 weeks duration. What is the best method to manage this case

    1. External drainage
    2. USG and follow up
    3. Cystogastrostomy
    4. Needle aspiration
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 68: All of the following vessels form a part of “circle of willis” except

    1. Anterior cerebral artery
    2. Middle cerebral artery
    3. Posterior cerebral artery
    4. Posterior communicating artery
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 69: Ulcerative colitis is characterized by all except:

    1. Crypt abcess
    2. Submucosal inflammation
    3. Pseudopolyps seen
    4. Fistula formation
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 70: 20. A 9 month old infant presented with features of intestinal obstruction. On barium enema, the diagnosis was confirmed to be intussusception. The most likely etiology would be

    1. Meckel’s diverticulum
    2. Hypertrophic Peyer’s patch
    3. Mucosal polyp
    4. Lipoma
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 71: The following statement/s about Littre’s hernia is/are true 1. usually occurs in the groin 2. more common in men than women 3. more common on the right side

    1. Only 1 is correct
    2. 2 is correct
    3. 1 and 2 are correct
    4. All the Above
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 72: At the end of a balanced anaesthesia technique with non-depolarizing muscle relaxant, a patient recovered spontaneously from the effect of muscle relaxant without any reversal. Which is the most probable relaxant the patient had received

    1. Pancuronium
    2. Gallamine
    3. Atracurium
    4. Vecuronium
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 73: Cranio-Vertebral Junction instability may result from all except

    1. Rheumatoid arthritis
    2. Tuberculosis
    3. Trauma
    4. Sarcoidosis
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 74: Tamoxifen is used in management of

    1. Breast carcinoma
    2. Cholecystitis
    3. Gastric carcinoma
    4. Hernia
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 75: Which of the following is seen in Pindborg’s tumor

    1. Sunray appearance
    2. Onion peel appearance
    3. Driven snow appearance
    4. Cherry Blossom appearance
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 76: Seminoma testis is seen in

    1. Always in undescended testis
    2. Occurs in elderly
    3. Occurs in younger age
    4. Always bilateral
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 77: In hand surgery which area is called "No man's land"

    1. Proximal phalanx
    2. Distal phalanx
    3. Wrist
    4. Between distal palmar crease and proximal phalanx
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 78: What is most characteristic of congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

    1. Affects the first born female child
    2. The pylori tumour is best feld during feeding
    3. The patient is commonly marasmic
    4. Loss of appetite occurs early
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 79: Chronic Subdural Hematoma presents

    1. 48-72 hours after injury
    2. 3 – 20 days after injury
    3. more than 3 weeks of injury
    4. may present any time after injury
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 80: For breast reconstruction which of the following is not used

    1. Transverse rectus abdominus myocutaneous flap
    2. Transverse rectus abdominus free flap
    3. Pectoralis major myocutaneous flap
    4. Lattismus dorsi myocutaneous flap
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 81: All of the following are the sites of portosystemaic shunts except

    1. Lower end of esophagus
    2. Umbilicus
    3. Bare area of liver
    4. Anal canal
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 82: Carcinoma prostate commonly occurs in the____ lobe

    1. Anterior
    2. Posterior
    3. Lateral
    4. Middle
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 83: Gastric malignancy is predisposed with

    1. Duodenal ulcer
    2. Gastric hyperplasia
    3. Intestinal metaplasia III
    4. Blood group O
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 84: Charcot joints include

    1. Destruction of bone
    2. Dense bone
    3. Deformity
    4. Debris
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 85: In gastric outlet obstruction in a duodenal ulcer patient, the site of obstruction is most likely to be

    1. Antrum
    2. Duodenum
    3. Pylorus
    4. Pyloric canal
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 86: All of the following are risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) except

    1. Duration of Surgery more than thirty minutes
    2. Obesity
    3. Age less than forty years
    4. Use of the oestrogen-projesterone contraceptive pills
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 87: A 6 month old child was found to have grade IV vesicoureteric reflux. The bladder wall is normal. The treatment of choice would be

    1. Ureteric reimplantation
    2. Teflon injection to ureteric orifices
    3. Antibiotics and observe
    4. Endoscopic ureteric resection
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 88: A patient operated for carcinoma colon 4 months back now presents with a 2 cm solitary mass in the liver. The best line of management is

    1. Radiotherapy
    2. Radiofrequency ablation
    3. Resection
    4. CT scan
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 89: In “Communicating hydrocephalus”, the site of CSF obstruction is

    1. Aqueduct
    2. Foramen of Magendie and Lushka
    3. Foramen of Monro
    4. Subarachnoid space
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 90: The most common cause of hypoxia during one lung ventilation is:

    1. Malposition of the double lumen tube
    2. Increased shunt fraction
    3. Collapse of one lung
    4. Soiling of lung by secretions
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 91: Angiographic demonstration of “puff of smoke” appearance is diagnostic of

    1. Polyarteritis Nodosa
    2. Moya – Moya disease
    3. Takayasu’s arteritis
    4. Arterio-Venous Fistula
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 92: Most common complication of acute appendicitis is

    1. Wound infection
    2. Appendicular mass
    3. Subphrenic abscess
    4. Perforation
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 93: Which of the following lasers is used for treatment of bening prostatic hyperplasia as well as urinary calculi?

    1. CO2 laser
    2. Ho: YAG laser
    3. Nd: YAG laser
    4. Excimer laser
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 94: CT scan may detect air in all of the following conditions except

    1. Trauma
    2. Post-operative scan
    3. Lumbar puncture
    4. Pyogenic meningitis
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 95: Which of the following is an absolute indication for surgery in cases of benign prostatic hyperplasia

    1. Bilateral hydroureteronephrosis
    2. Nocturnal frequency
    3. Recurrent urinary tract infection
    4. Voiding bladder pressures> 50 cm of water
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 96: In aortic dissection the investigation of choice is

    1. ECG
    2. CT scan
    3. Aortography
    4. MRI
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 97: Treatment of duodenal ulcer which has least recurrence is

    1. Highly selective vagotomy
    2. Vagotomy with antrectomy
    3. Vagotomy with gastrojejunostomy
    4. Gastrojejnostomy
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 98: All are features of acute peritonitis except

    1. Bowel sound present
    2. Rigidity
    3. Muscle guarding
    4. Tenderness
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 99: Symptomatology of metastatic brain abscess includes all except

    1. Headache
    2. Altered sensorium
    3. Hemiparesis
    4. Conductive hearing loss
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 100: Strong correlation with colorectal cancer is seen in

    1. Peutz-Jegher's polyp
    2. Familial polyposis coli
    3. Juvenile polyposis
    4. Hyperplastic polyp
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.