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(Model Test Paper) PG Medical Entrance Examination Model Paper For (Medicine)

Posted January 27th, 2009 by guru

Test Paper :  PG Medical Entrance Examination Model Paper For (Medicine)

Question 1: In tuberous sclerosis, the lesion is


    1. Adenoma malignum
    2. Adenoma sebaceum
    3. Café au lait spots
    4. Axillary freckling
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 2: Toxin involved in the streptococcal toxic shock syndrome PJC

    1. pyrogenic exotoxin
    2. erythrogenic toxin
    3. hemolysin
    4. M Protien
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 3: A 45 year old woman, presenting with the history of diplopia and dysphagia worsening as the day progrsses, can be diagnosed to have

    1. Thyrotoxicosis
    2. Myasthenia gravis
    3. Muscular dystrophy
    4. Brain tumor
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 4: A couple, with a family history of beta thalassemia major in a distant relative. has come for counseling. The husband had HbA2 of 4.8% and the wife has HbA2 of 2.3%. The risk of having a child with beta thalassemia major is:

    1. 50%
    2. 25%
    3. 5%
    4. 0%
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 5: Renal osteodystrophy differs from nutritional and metabolic rickets due to the presence of

    1. Hyperphosphatemia
    2. Hypercalcemia
    3. Hypophosphatemia
    4. Hypocalcemia
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 6: Basanti, 23 year old pregnant women presents with features of dilated cardiomyopathy. Which of the following drugs you will not give to treat her

    1. Digoxin
    2. ACE Inhibitors
    3. Diuretics
    4. vasodilators
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 7: Which of the following behavioral problems would suggest an organic brain lesion

    1. Formal thought disorder
    2. Auditory hallucinations
    3. Visual hallucinations
    4. Depression
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 8: An early systolic murmur may be caused by all of the following except

    1. Small ventricular septal defect
    2. Papillary muscle dysfunction
    3. Tricuspid regurgitation
    4. Aortic stenosis
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 9: If urine sample darkens on standing, most likely condition is

    1. phenylketonuria
    2. alkaptonuria
    3. maplpe syrup urine disease
    4. DM
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 10: Rheumatoid factor in rheumatoid arthritis is important because

    1. RA factor is associated with bad prognosis
    2. Absent RA factor rules out the diagnosis of Rheumatoid arthritis
    3. It is very common in childhood Rheumatoid arthritis
    4. It correlates with disease activity
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 11: Absence seizures are characterized on EEG by

    1. 3Hz spike & wave
    2. 1-2Hz spike & wave
    3. Generalized polyspikes
    4. Hyparrythmia
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 12: All are opportunistic infections in AIDS except

    1. Herpes zoster Ophthalmicus
    2. Herpes simplex keratitis
    3. TB
    4. Toxocariasis
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 13: An eleven month child was found to be very restless and hyperactive in the classroom making it difficult for the other students in the classroom to concentrate. He runs round the class all the day cannot sit at one place for a long time. He gets very agitated when the toy in his hand is taken away. The most probable diagnosis is

    1. Autism
    2. Conduct disorder
    3. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
    4. Conversion
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 14: Most common cause of meningitis in kids 6 months to 2 years of age

    1. pneumococcus
    2. staph
    3. H influenza
    4. E.coli
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 15: In hepatolenticular degeneration,main sites of copper accumulation are

    1. Liver
    2. Brain
    3. 1 & 2 are true
    4. Only 1 is correct
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 16: All of the following are hepatotoxic except

    1. INH
    2. Rifampicin
    3. Pyrazinamide
    4. Ethambutol
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 17: Investigation of choice for detecting Syphilis after 2 course of complete therapy is

    1. FTA Abs
    2. VDRL
    3. TPI
    4. Dark ground microscopy
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 18: Decreased cardiac output is due to

    1. Decreased venous return
    2. Decreased end diastolic volume
    3. Increased sympathetic stimulation
    4. Decreased vagal tone
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 19: Atrial fibrillation is seen in all except

    1. Ventricular Septal defect
    2. Constrictive pericarditis
    3. Myocardial infarction
    4. Atrial septal defect
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 20: Commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is

    1. Seizures
    2. Focalneurological deficits
    3. Dementia
    4. Radiculopathy
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 21: The most common cause of tricuspid regurgitation is secondary to

    1. Rheumatic heart disease
    2. Dilatation of right ventricle
    3. Coronary artery disease
    4. Endocarditis due to intravenous drug abuse
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 22: A lady approaches a physician for contraceptive advice. On examination there were two symmetrical ulcers on vulva, which were well defined with a firm base. Which of the following is the most likely cause

    1. Syphilis
    2. LGV
    3. Herpes
    4. Malignancy
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 23: Features of tuberous sclerosis are all except

    1. Epilepsy
    2. Low IQ or Mental retardation
    3. Adenoma sebaceum
    4. Scleritis
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 24: A 23- year old woman has experience episod of myalgias, pleural effusion, peicarditis and arthralgias without joint deformity over course of several years. The best laboratory screening test to diagnose her disease would be

    1. CD4 Lymphocyte count
    2. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
    3. Antinuclear antibody
    4. Assay for thyroid hormones
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 25: Rokitansky Kuster hauser syndrome: most likely condition is

    1. ovary agenesis
    2. fallopian tubes absent
    3. vaginal atresia
    4. bicornuate uterus
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 26: All the following are true about loculated pleural effusion except

    1. It makes an obtuse angle with the chest wall
    2. The margins are diffuse when viewed end on
    3. Not confined to any bronchopulmonary segment
    4. Air bronchograms are seen within the opacity
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 27: Drug of choice for juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is

    1. Aspirin
    2. Codiene
    3. Colchicine
    4. Diazepam
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 28: Following are the signs of Wilson's disease except

    1. Hepatomegaly
    2. Icterus
    3. Kayser Fleischer ring
    4. Immature cataract
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 29: Which of the following is the drug of first choice for Non-Gonococcal Urethritis

    1. Ceftriaxone
    2. Ciprofloxacin
    3. Doxycycline
    4. Minocycline
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 30: Heparin is the commonly used anticoagulant in cardiac surgery. All of the following are true about heparin except

    1. Weakest acid found in living things
    2. Most commercial preparations of heparin now utilize pig intestinal slimes
    3. Act via Antithrombin activation
    4. Produce thrombocytopenia
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 31: Maladie de Roger is

    1. Small V.S.D
    2. Large V.S.D
    3. Small A.S.D
    4. Large A.S.D.
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 32: “Subclavian Steal Syndrome” indicates reversal of blood flow in

    1. Subclavian artery
    2. Internal carotid artery
    3. Vertebral artery
    4. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 33: Which of the following features denote a contraindication for surgical resection in a case of carcinoma lung

    1. Malignant pleural effusion
    2. Involvement of visceral pleura
    3. Hilar lymphadenopathy
    4. Consolidation of one lobe
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 34: A baby with refusal to feed, skin lesions, seizures, organic acids in urine, lactic acidosis with normal ammoni

    1. diagnosis is
    2. organic aciduria
    3. multiple carboxylase deficiency
    4. propionic acidemia
    5.
Correct Answer: 5.


Question 35: All of the following statements regarding the ECG in acute pericarditis are true except

    1. T-wave inversions develop before ST elevations return to baseline
    2. Global ST segment elevation is seen in early pericarditis
    3. Sinus tachycardia is a common finding
    4. PR segment depression is present in majority of patients
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 36: Delusions are seen in all the following except

    1. Depression
    2. Mania
    3. Schizophrenia
    4. Obsessive compulsive disorder
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 37: Which of the following ECG changes is least likely in a patient with left pneumothorax

    1. Inversion of T wave
    2. Left axis deviation
    3. Small R wave
    4. Electrical alternans
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 38: Which of the following is not associated with increase in intracranial pressure

    1. Increase in blood pressure
    2. Respiratory depression
    3. Tachycardia
    4. Deterioration of consciousness
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 39: The use of which one of the following may cause cardiomyopathy

    1. Adriamycin
    2. Carboplatin
    3. Dactinomycin
    4. Etoposide
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 40: Acantholysis is characteristic of

    1. Pemphigus vulgaris
    2. Pemphigoid
    3. Erythema multiforme
    4. Dermatitis hepetiformis
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 41: Drug of choice in Bells Palsy is

    1. Carbamazepine
    2. Dexamethasone
    3. Clonazepam
    4. Aspirin
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 42: Aplastic crisis in sickle cell anemia is associated in infection with

    1. Adenovirus
    2. Parvovirus
    3. Influenza virus
    4. Papilloma virus
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 43: A 60 year old male presented to the emergency with breathlessness, facial swelling and dilated veins on the chest wall. The most common cause is

    1. Thymoma
    2. Lung Cancer
    3. Hodgkin's lymphoma
    4. Superior vena caval obstruction
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 44: All are features of Acromegaly except

    1. Carpel Tunnel syndrome
    2. Prognathism
    3. Decreased sweating
    4. Arthropathy
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 45: Exercise testing is absolutely contraindicated in which one week following

    1. One week following myocardial infarction
    2. Unstable angina
    3. Aortic stenosis
    4. Peripheral vascular disease
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 46: In a patient, annular erythematous lesions on the trunk were seen circumscribed by collarete scales. The diagnosis is most likely to be

    1. Pityriasis versicolor
    2. Pityriasis rosea
    3. Pityriasis rubra pilaris
    4. Lichen planus
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 47: All of the following are the electrocardiographic features of severe hyperkalemia except

    1. Peaked T waves
    2. Presence of U waves
    3. Sine wave pattern
    4. Loss of P waves
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 48: The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone is characterized by the following

    1. Hyponatremia andurine sodium excretion >20meq/l
    2. Hypernatremia andurine sodium exeretion < 20meq/l.
    3. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia
    4. Hypernatremia and hypokalemia
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 49: Clinical condition associated with spasticity:

    1. hypertension
    2. stroke
    3. multiple sclerosis
    4. hypertension and multiple sclerosis
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 50: Saddle back type of fever is seen in

    1. Brucellosis
    2. Dengue fever
    3. Viral fever
    4. Enteric fever
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 51: A patient was on treatment with trifluperazine for some time. He presents with complaints of hyperthermia, lethargy and sweating. What is the next step in management

    1. Do a CT scan brain and a hemogram
    2. Hemogram, electrolyte levels and creatinine
    3. ECG, chest X ray and hemogram
    4. Hemogram, CPK and RFT
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 52: A 25 year old man presented with fever, cough, expectoration and breathlessness of 2 months duration. Contrast enhanced computed tomography of the chest showed bilateral upper lobe fibrotic lessons and mediastinum had enlarged necrotic nodes with peripheral rim enhancement. Which one of the following is the most probable diagnosis

    1. Sarcoidosis.
    2. Tuberculosis.
    3. Lymphoma
    4. Silicosis
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 53: A patient presents 12 hours following a Myocardial infarction. Which of the following enzymes will be elevated at this stage

    1. Lactate dehydrogenase
    2. Serum Glutamate Oxalo acetate Transferase
    3. Creatinine Phospho Kinase
    4. Myoglobin
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 54: Features of Kallmans syndrome includes all except

    1. Selective GnRH failure
    2. Congenital
    3. FSH production is normal
    4. Anosmia
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 55: In the JVP, all the following combinations are true except

    1. c wave - atrial systole
    2. ax descent - atrial relaxation
    3. cy descent - ventricular relaxation
    4. ya descent - atrial filling
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 56: Kaposi's sarcoma can affect

    1. Skin
    2. Mouth
    3. GIT
    4. All are correct
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 57: “Syringomyelia” may be associated with all except

    1. spinal cord injury
    2. tubercular arachnoiditis
    3. Arnold chiari malformation
    4. Demyelination
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 58: An eleven year old boy is having tinea capitis on his sclap. The most appropriate line of treatment is

    1. Oral griseofulvin therapy
    2. Topical griseofulvin therapy
    3. Shaving of the scalp
    4. Selenium sulphide shampoo
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 59: In Conn’s syndrome, all the following are seen except

    1. Hypokalemia
    2. Hypernatremia
    3. Hypertension
    4. Edema
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 60: Following organs can get affected in Marfan syndrome

    1. Heart
    2. Lung
    3. Eye
    4. All are true
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 61: All the following are correct statements regarding findings in JVP except

    1. Cannon wave - Complete heart block
    2. Slow vy descent - Tricuspid regurgitation
    3. Giant cv wave - Tricuspid stenosis
    4. Increased JVP with prominent pulsations - SVC obstruction
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 62: Osler;s nodes are typically seen in which one of the follwing

    1. Chronic Candida endocarditis
    2. Acute Staphylococcal endocarditis
    3. Pseudomonas endocarditis
    4. Libman sack’s endocarditis
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 63: Acquired extra –cranial infection that causes aqueductal stenosis is

    1. Bacterial endocarditis
    2. Mumps
    3. Measles
    4. Staphylococcal septicemia
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 64: Skin contains mainly two glands

    1. Sweat & sebaceous
    2. Meibomian and Eccrine
    3. Apocrine and sweat gland
    4. Eccrine and apocrine
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 65: Which of the following is the best method to assess the adequacy of replacement fluid in a case of shock

    1. Decrease in thirst
    2. Increase in urine out put
    3. Blood pressure
    4. Increased Pa O2
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 66: Pulmonary hypertension may occur in all of the following conditions except

    1. Toxic oil syndrome
    2. Progressive systemic sclerosis
    3. Sickle cell anaemia
    4. Argemone mexicana poisoning
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 67: In which of the following conditions does hyperglycemia occur

    1. Addison’s disease
    2. Uremia
    3. Acromegaly
    4. Fever
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 68: A patient with nephrotic syndrome with longstanding corticosteroid therapy may develop all the following except

    1. Hyperglycemia
    2. Hypertrophy of muscle
    3. Neuropsychiatric symptoms
    4. Suppression of the pituitary adrenal axis
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 69: A patient presents with hypertension and dizziness. The X-ray shows anterior rib notching. The diagnosis is most likely to be

    1. Pheochromocytoma
    2. Coarctation of the aorta
    3. Neurofibromatosis
    4. Marfan syndrome
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 70: Which one of the following is not a feature of phenylketonuria

    1. Severe mental retardation
    2. Reduced tendon reflexes
    3. Enamel hypoplasia
    4. Vomiting in early infancy
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 71: A 15 year old boy feels that the dirt has hung onto him whenever he passes through the dirty street. This repetitive thought causes much distress and anxiety. He knows that there is actually no such thing after he has cleaned once but he is not satisfied and is compelled to think so. This has led to social withdrawal. He spends much of his time thinking about the dirt and contamination. This has affected his studies also. The most likely diagnosis is

    1. Obsessive compulsive disorder
    2. Conduct disorder
    3. Agarophobia
    4. Adjustment disorder
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 72: Erythema nodosum is seen in

    1. Sulphonamides
    2. Phenylbutazone
    3. Digoxin
    4. Ciprofloxacin
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 73: In mind relaxed and eyes close the wave is

    1. Alpha
    2. Beta
    3. Theta
    4. Delta
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 74: A case of carcinoma cervix found to be in altered sensorium and having hiccups. Cause could be

    1. septicemia
    2. uremia
    3. dementia
    4.
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 75: Following cardiovascular abnormalities are seen in Marfan syndrome

    1. Mitral valve prolapse
    2. Aortic aneurysm
    3. Aortic dissection.
    4. All are true
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 76: Osteoporosis is caused by all except

    1. Methotrxate
    2. Glucocorticoides
    3. Heparin
    4. Estradiol
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 77: A child presents with white patch over the tonsils and resp. distress. A throat swab was taken. It should be cultured with

    1. loeffler serus slope
    2. LJ medium
    3. Caryblair media
    4. Caryblair media
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 78: The most sensitive and practical technique for detection of myocardial ischemia in the perioperative period is

    1. Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy
    2. Radio labelled lactate dehydogenase determination
    3. Direct measurement of end diastolic pressure
    4. Regional wall motion abnormality detected wth the help of 2 D transoesphagealechocardiography
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 79: Nephrotic syndrome can be caused by all except

    1. Malaria
    2. Syphilis
    3. Hepatitis
    4. Mycoplasma
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 80: Uhthoff's phenomenon is seen in

    1. Multiple sclerosis
    2. Guillian Barie syndrome
    3. Marfan's syndrome
    4. Duane's syndrome
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 81: Consider the following statements: Dengue is a protozoan disease transmitted by mosquitoes. Retro-orbital pain is not a symptom of Dengue. Skin rash and bleeding from nose and gums are some of the symptoms of Dengue. Which of the statements given above is/arecorrect?

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 3 only
    3. 2 only
    4. 1 and 3
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 82: Potts shunt is

    1. Rt subclavian artery to rt pulmonary
    2. Descending aorta to left pulmonary
    3. Left subclavian to left pulmonary
    4. Ascending aorta to right pulmonary
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 83: A young lady presents with a history of excessive food intake following which she would induce vomiting. The diagnosis is most likely to be

    1. Binge eating disorder
    2. Bulimia nervosa
    3. Anorexia Nervosa
    4. Obsessive compulsive disorder
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 84: A 40 year old male developed persistent oral ulcers followed by multiple flaccid bullae on trunk and extremities. Direct examination of a skin biopsy immunofluorescence showed intercellular igG deposits inthe epidermis. The most probable diagnosis is

    1. Pemphigus vulgaris
    2. Bullous Pemphigoid
    3. Bullous Lupus erythematosus.
    4. Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 85: A patient has presented to you with pleural effusion. The best site of aspiration of the fluid would be through the

    1. 5th intercostal space in the midclavicular line
    2. 2nd intercostal space close to the sternum
    3. 7th intercostal space in mid axillary line
    4. 10th intercostal space in paravertebral location
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 86: Deleterious effect of ultrasound on small organs is

    1. Ionisation
    2. Vacoulation
    3. Cavitation
    4. Disintegration
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 87: Treaement of choice Tinea infection of nail is

    1. Griseofulvin+fluconazole
    2. Zinc Oxide.
    3. Nystatin
    4. Itraconazole
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 88: All of the following are antifungals except

    1. Metronidazole
    2. Griseofulvin
    3. Fluconazole
    4. Ketoconazole
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 89: Acetazolamide
Ans 4

    1. Produces a metallic taste
    2. Rx is associated with perioral paraesthesia
    3. Is associated with hyperopia
    4. 1 & 2 are true,3 is false
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 90: Which of the following is not a complete sterilization agent

    1. glutaraldehyde
    2. absolut alcohol
    3. hydrogen peroxide
    4. sodium hypochlorite
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 91: A 20- year-old man has presented with increased alcohol consumption and sexual indulgence, irritability, lack of sleep, and not feeling fatigued even on prolonged periods of activity. Activity. All these changes have beenpresent for 3 weeks . The most likely diagnosis is

    1. Alcohol dependence
    2. Schizophrenia
    3. Mania
    4. Impulsive control disorder
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 92: Chancre is a lesion see in

    1. Primary syphilis & is painless
    2. Secondary syphilis & is painless
    3. Secondary syphilis & is painful
    4. Primary syphilis & is painful
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 93: Which of the following is seen in ITP

    1. Thrombocytosis
    2. Increased Prothrombin time
    3. Increased Bleeding time
    4. Increased clotting time
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 94: All are sign of Left ventricular failure except

    1. Basal crepts
    2. Dyspnoea
    3. Orthopnoea
    4. Pedal edema
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 95: Complications of Cirrhosis include

    1. Edema and ascites
    2. Portal hypertension
    3. Liver cancer
    4. All are true
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 96: Black deposits (melanin) in liver may be seen in

    1. Rotors Syndrome
    2. Dubin Johnson Syndrome
    3. Gilberts syndrome
    4. Crigler Najjar syndrome
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 97: Kalloo, a 24 year old occasional alcoholic has got a change in his behavior. He has become suspicious that people are trying to conspire against him though his father states that there is no reason for his fears. He is getting hallucinations of voices commenting on his actions. What is the most probable diagnosis

    1. Delerium tremens
    2. Alcohol induced psychosis
    3. Schizophrenia
    4. Delusional disorder
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 98: During cardiopulmonary resusitaton intravenous calcium glouconate is indicated under all for the follwing circumstances except

    1. After I min. of arrest routinely
    2. Hypocalcemia
    3. Calcium channel blocker toxicity
    4. Electromechanical dissociaton
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 99: Diagnostic features of allergic broncho-pulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) include all of the following except

    1. Changing pulmonary infiltrates
    2. Peripheral eosinophilia
    3. Serum precipitins against Aspergillosis fumigatus
    4. Occurance in patients with old cavitary lesions
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 100: Exfoliative dermatitis is seen in all the following except

    1. Pityriasis Rosea
    2. Pityriasis Rubra pilaris
    3. Psoriasis
    4. Drug reaction
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.