Paper : Medical PG Sample Questions Papers Set - 2

Question 1: Which of the following is the drug of first choice for Non-Gonococcal Urethritis?
A) Ceftriaxone
B) Ciprofloxacin
C) Doxycycline
D) Minocycline


Question 2: An 80 year old asymptomatic woman was detected to have a monoclonal spike on serum electrophoresis (IgG levels 1.5g/dL). Bone marrow revealed plasma cells of 8%. The most likely diagnosis is?
A) Multiple myeloma
B) Indolent myeloma
C) Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance
D) Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia


Question 3: HBAic level in blood explains?
A) Acute rise of sugar
B) Long term status of blopg
Questions set 2

Question 1: Which prominent ocular manifestation is associated with Marfan's syndrome?
A) Microcornea
B) Microspherophakia
C) Megalocornea
D) Ectopia lentis

Question 2: A two months old child presents with epiphora and regurgitation. The most probable diagnosis is?
A) Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
B) Buphthalmos
C) Congenital dacryocystitis
D) Encysted mucocele

Question 3: All are ocular emergencies except?
A) Angle closure glaucoma
B) Central serous retinopathy
C) Retinal detachment
D) Central retinal arterial occulsion

Question 4: "Photo dynamic therapy" is used in the eye for the following disease?
A) Cataract
B) Glaucoma
C) Uveitis
D) Wet AMD (Age relaged macular degeneration)

Question 5: A two week old child presents with unilateral cataract, Which of the following statement represents the best management advice?
A) The best age to operate him to get the best visual results is four weeks
B) The best age to operate him to get the best visual results is four months
C) The best age to operate him to get the best visual results is four years
D) The eye is already lost, only cosmetic correction is required

Question 6: The most common condition of inherited blindness due to mitochondrial chromosomal anomaly is?
A) Retinopathy of prematurity
B) Leber's Hereditary Optic neuropathy
C) Retinitis pigmentosa
D) Retinal detachment

Question 7: Maximum density of goblet cells is seen in?
A) Superior conjunctiva
B) Inferior conjunctiva
C) Nasal conjunctiva
D) Temporal conjunctiva

Question 8: Latanoprost used topically in glaucoma primarily acts by ?
A) Decreasing aqueous humor formation
B) Increasing uveoscleral outflow
C) Releasing pupillary block
D) Increasing trabecular outflow

Question 9: In which of the following conditions, severe itching of the eye with ropy discharge in a 10 year old boy with symptoms aggravating in summer season is most likely present?
A) Trachoma
B) Vernal Keratoconjunctivitis
C) Acute Conjunctivitis
D) Blepharitis

Question 10: Polychromatic lustre is seen in ?
A) Complicated cataract
B) Diabetes Mellitus
C) Post Radiation Cataract
D) Congenital Cataract

Question 11: A 12 year old girl with tremors and emotional lability has a golden brown discoloration of Descement's membrane. The most likely diagnosis is?
A) Fabry's Disease
B) Wilson Disease
C) Glycogen storage disease
D) Acute rheumatic fever

Question 12: All of the following can cause a white pupillary reflex except?
A) Retinoblastoma
B) Cataract
C) Retrolental fibroplasia
D) Glaucoma

Question 13: A 10-month-old child weighing 8 kg has Bitot spots in both eyes. Which of the following is the most appropriate schedule to prescribe vitamin A to this child?
A) 2 lack units intramuscular (IM) day 0, 14
B) 1 lack units IM on day 0, 14
C) 2 lack units IM on day 0, 1 and 14
D) 1 lack units IM on day 0, 1 and 14

Question 14: Arlt's line is seen in ?
A) Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
B) Pterygium
C) Ocular pemphigoid
D) Trachoma

Question 15: Which of the following will be the most important adjuvant therapy in a case of fungal corneal ulcer?
A) Atropine sulphate eye ointment
B) Dexamethasone eye drops
C) Pilocarpine eye drops
D) Lignocaine eye drops

Question 1: Management plan for osteogenic sarcoma of the lower end of femur must include?
A) Radiotherapy - amputation - chemotherapy
B) Surgery alone
C) Chemotherapy - limb salvage surgery - chemotherapy
D) Chemotherapy + radiotherapy

Question 2: An army recruit, smoker and 6 months into training started complaining of pain at posterior medial aspect of both legs. There was acute point tenderness and the pain was aggravated on physical activity. The most likely diagnosis is?
A) Burger's disease
B) Gout
C) Lumbar canal stenosis
D) Stress fracture

Question 3: Tuberculosis of the spine commonly affects all of the following parts of the vertebra except?
A) Body
B) Lamina
C) Spinous process
D) Pedicle

Question 4: Aspetic loosening in cemented total hip replacement, occurs as a result of hypersensitivity response to?
A) Titaneum debris
B) High density polythene debris
C) N, N - Dimethyltryptamine (DMT)
D) Free radicals

Question 5: In fracture of the olecranon, excision of the proximal fragment is indicated in all of the following situations except?
A) Old ununited fractures
B) Non-articular fracture
C) Fracture extending to coronoid process
D) Elderly patient

Question 6: All of the following can be the complications of a malunited Colles fracture except?
A) Rupture of flexor pollicis longus tendon
B) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy (RSD)
C) Carpal tunnel syndrome
D) Carpal instability

Question 7: In some old fractures, cartilaginous tissue forms over the fractured bone ends with a cavity in between containing clear fluid. This condition called as? 
A) Delayed Union
B) Slow union
C) Non union
D) Pseudoarthrosis

Question 1: In right middle ear pathology Weber's test will be?
A) Normal
B) Centralised
C) Lateralised to right side
D) Lateralised to left side

Question 2: Meniere's disease is characterized by ?
A) Conductive hearing loss and tinnitus
B) Vertigo, ear discharge, tinnitus and headache
C) Vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss and headache
D) Vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss

Question 3: Which of the following statements best represents Bell's paralysis ?
A) Hemiparesis and contralateral facial nerve paralysis
B) Combined paralysis of the facial. Trigeminal, and abducens nerves
C) Idiopathic ipsilateral paralysis of the facial nerve
D) Facial nerve paralysis with a dry eye

Question 4: Fordyce's (spots) Granules in Oral Cavity arise from ?
A) Mucous glands
B) Sebaceous glands
C) Taste buds
D) Minor salivary glands

Question 5: In which of the following locations there is collection of pus in the quinsy?
A) Peritonsillar space
B) Paraphyangeal space
C) Retrophyrangeal space
D) Within the tonsil

Question 1: The neonatal kidney achieves concentrating ability equivalent to adult's kidney by?
A) One year of age
B) Eighteen months of age
C) Three to six months of age
D) Just before puberty

Question 2: Bone marrow transplantation can be used as a treatment for all except?
A) Osteopetrosis
B) Adrenoleukodystrophy
C) Hurler's syndrome
D) Hemochromatosis

Question 3: A two-month old child is able to ?
A) Show a positive parachute protective reflex
B) Hold head steady in a seated position
C) Lift head and chest off a flat surface
D) Sustain head level with the body when placed in ventral suspension

Question 4: Retardation of skeletal maturity can be caused by all except?
A) Chronic renal failure
B) Hypothyroidism
C) Protein energy malnutrition (PEM)
D) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

Question 5: All of the following are neural tube defects except?
A) Myelomeningocele
B) Anencephaly
C) Encephalocele
D) Holoprosencephaly

Question 6: A nine month old boy of Sindhi parents presented to you with complaints of progressive lethargy, irritability & pallor since 6 months of age. Examination revealed severe Pallor. Investigations showed Hb- 3.8 gm%, MCV - 58 fl, MCH - 19.4 pg/cell. Blood film shows osmotic fragility is normal (target cells and normoblasts). X-ray skull shows expansion of erythroid marrow. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Iron deficiency anaemia
B) Acute lymphoblastic anaemia
C) Hemoglobin D disease
D) Hereditary spherocytosis

Question 7: A 5 year old child presents with history of fever off and on for past 2 weeks and petechial spots all over the body and increasing pallor for past 1 month. Examination reveals splenomegaly of 2 cms below costal margin. The most likely diagnosis is?
A) Acute leukemia
B) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
C) Hypersplenism
D) Aplastic anaemia

Question 8: A 5 year old girl came with history of progressively increasing pallor since birth and hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following is the most relevant test for achieving diagnosis?
A) Hb electrophoresis
B) Peripheral smear examination
C) Osmotic fragility test
D) Bone marrow examination

Question 9: All are the features of absence seizures except?
A) Usually seen in childhood
B) 3 Hz spike wave in EEG
C) Postictal confusion
D) Precipitation by hyperventilation

Question 10: A 10 month old child presents with two weeks' history of fever, vomiting and alteration of sensorium. Cranial CT Scan reveals basal exudates and hydrocephalus. The most likely etiological agent is?
A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B) Cryptococcus neoformans
C) Listeria monocytogenes
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae

Question 11: Webbing of neck, increased carrying angle, low posterior hair line and short fourth metacarpal are characterstics of ?
A) Klinefelter syndrome
B) Turner syndrome
C) Cri du chat syndrome
D) Noonan syndrome

Question 12: A five day old, full term male infant was severely cyanotic at birth. Prostaglandin E was administered initially and later balloon atrial septostomy was done which showed improvement in oxygenation. The most likely diagnosis of this infant is?
A) Tetralogy of Fallot
B) Transposition of great vessels
C) Truncus Arteriosus
D) Tricuspid Atresia

Question 1: All of the following statements about Hairy cell leukemia are true except?
A) Splenomegaly is conspicuous
B) Results from an expansion of neoplastic T lymphocytes
C) Cells are positive for Tartarate Resistant Acid Phosphatase (TRAP)
D) The cells express CD25 consistently

Question 2: Splenic macrophages in Gaucher's disease differ from those in ceroid histiocytes by staining positive for?
A) Lipids
B) Phospholipids
C) Acid fast stain
D) Iron

Question 3: Biopsy from a mole on the foot shows cytologic Atypia of melanocytes and diffuse epidermal infiltration by Anaplastic cells, which are also present in the papillary and reticular dermis. The most likely diagnosis is?
A) Melanoma, Clark level IV
B) Congenital melanocytic nevus
C) Dysplastic nevus
D) Melanoma, Clark level III

Question 4: A 60 year old male presented with acute chest pain of 4 hours duration. Electrocardiographic examination revealed new Q wave with ST segment depression. He succumbed to his illness within 24 hours of admission. The heart revealed presence of a transmural haemorrhagic area over the septum and anterior wall of the left ventricle. Light microscopic examination is most likely to reveal?
A) Edema in between normal myofibres
B) Necrotic myofibres with presence of neutrophils
C) Coagulative necrosis of the myocytes with presence of
granulation tissue
D) Infiltration by histiocytes with haemosiderin laden
macrophages

Question 5: A 40 year old man presented with painless haematuria. Bimanual examination revealed a ballotable mass over the right flank. Subsequently right nephrectomy was done and the mass was seen to be composed of cells with clear cytoplasm. Areas of haemorrhage and necrosis were frequent. Cytogenetic analysis of this mass is likely to reveal the abnormality of ?
A) Chromosome 1
B) Chromosome 3
C) Chromosome 11
D) Chromosome 17

Question 6: The most common histologic type of Thyroid cancer
is?
A) Medullary type
B) Follicular type
C) Papillary type
D) Anaplastic type

Question 7: The commonest site of oral cancer among Indian
population is ?
A) Tongue
B) Floor of mouth
C) Alveobuccal complex
D) Lip

Question 8: Which of the following gene defects is associated with development of Medullary carcinoma of Thyroid?
A) Ret proto Oncogene
B) FAP gene
C) Rb gene
D) BRCA 1 gene

Question 9: All of the following statements are true about sickle cell disease except?
A) Patients may require frequent blood transfusions
B) Acute infection is the most common cause of mortality before
3 years of age
C) There is positive correlation between concentration HbS and
polymerization of HbS
D) Patients presents early in life before 6 months of age

Question 10: All of the following are good prognostic features for Hodgkin's disease except?
A) Haemoglobin > 10 g/dl
B) WBC count < 15000/mm3
C) Absolute lymphocyte count < 600 / microliters
D) Age < 45 yrs

Question 11: Which of the following is the most common cytogenetic abnormality in adult Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) ?
A) Trisomy 8
B) 20 q-
C) 5p
D) monosomy 7

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