(Paper) AIIMS EXAMINATION PAPER WITH ANSWERS EXPLANATIONS YEAR 2003 (Pg-1)
Posted December 25th, 2008 by guru
AIIMS EXAMINATION PAPER WITH ANSWERS EXPLANATIONS YEAR 2003
1. A dead born foetus does not have:
1. Rigor mortis at birth.
2. Adipocere formation.
3.Maceration.
4. Mummification.
Ans 2/4??
2. False sense of perception without any external object or stimulus is known
as:
1. Illusion.
2. Impulse.
3.Hallucination.
4. Phobia.
Ans 3
3. Species identifications is done by:
1.Neutron activation analysis (N.A.A.).
2. Precipitin test.
3. Benzidine test.
4. Spectroscopy.
Ans 2 -Tests for species identification are Precipitin test, Latex agglutination
test, Haem-agglutination inhibition test.
4. In a suspected case of death due to poisoning where cadaveric rigidity is
lasting longer than usual, it may be a case of poisoning due to:
1. Lead.
2. Arsenic.
3. Mercury.
4. Copper.
Ans 2
5. 'Whip-lash' injuries is caused due to:
1. A fall from a height.
2. Acute hyperextension of the spine.
3. A blow on top to head.
4. Acute hyper flexion of the spine.
Ans 2 (Ref Maheshwari page 147, CSDT 11th ed 1206)- This injury occurs
due to rear end automobile collision.The body of victim is accelerated by the
impact force but the head is left behind.Sudden hyperextension followed by
sudden hyperflexion occurs. It is mentioned that in mild forms only subtle
hyperextension injuries zare found in X Ray.So hyperextension being the primary
injury is most important answer.
Other questions about Whiplash-
Characteristic feature is that Plain X ray may be normal. Radiological features
suggestive of this unstable injury are
1) Widening of anterior disc space
2) Injury to facets joints, pedicle or lamina
3) Avulsion fractures of anterior vertebral body
4) Retropharyngeal swelling / Fracture of posterior facet.Reversal of cervical
lordosis suggests damage to posterior facets and manifests as S Shaped (swan
neck deformity)Kyphosis seen most often at C4-C5, C5-C6 levels.
6. All of the following form radiolucent
stones except:
1. Xanthine.
2. Cysteine.
3. Allopurinol.
4. Orotic acid.
Ans 2. Radio-opaque stone are Struvite, cysteine, oxlate. Radiolucent are
Xanthine, uric acid and uric acid. Allopurinol stones do not exist as such but
Allopurinol may lead to xanthine stones.
7. A young female presents with history of dyspnoea on exertion. On examination,
she has wide, fixed split of S2 with ejection systolic murmur (III/VI) in left
second intercostals space. Her EKG shows left axis deviation. The most probable
diagnosis is :
1. Total anomalous pulmonary venous drainge.
2. Tricuspid atresia.
3. Ostium primum atrial septal defect.
4. Ventricular septal defect with pulmonary arterial hypertension.
Ans 3
8. Which test is performed to detect reversible myocardial ischemia ?
1. Coronary angiography.
2. MUGA scan.
3. Thallium scan.
4. Resting echocardiography.
Ans 3
9. A 62 years old man with caracioma of lung presented to emergency department
with respiratory distress. His EKG showed electrical alternans. The most likely
diagnosis is :
1. Pneumothorax.
2. Pleural effusion.
3. Cardiac tamponade.
4. Constrictive pericarditis.
Ans 3
10. Atrial fibrillation may occur in all of the following conditions, except:
1. Mitral stenosis.
2. Hypothyroidism.
3. Dilated cardiomyopathy.
4. Mitral regurgitation.
Ans 2 (Causes of AF include hyperthyroidism)
11. A patient with recent-onset primary generalized epilepsy develops drug
reaction and skin rash due to phenytoin sodium, The most appropriate course of
action is :
1. Shift to clonazepam.
2. Restart phenytoin sodium after 2 weeks.
3. Shift to sodium valproate.
4. Shift to ethosuximide.
Ans 3
12. Which of the following is the commonest location of hypertensive hemorrhage?
1. Pons.
2. Thalamus.
3. Putamen/external capsule.
4. Cerebellum.
Ans 3
13. Which of the following is the most common central nervous system parasitic
infection?
1. Echinococcosis.
2. Sparganosis.
3. Paragonimiasis.
4. Neurocysticercosis.
Ans 4. Echinococcosis- Most common site is liver & lungs. Paragonimiasis
occurs in lungs.
14. Which of the following is the most common tumor associated with type I
neurofibromatosis?
1. Optic nerve glioma.
2. Meningioma.
3. Acoustic Schwannoma.
4. Low grade astrocytoma.
Ans 1 [Ranjita Pallavi, K.J.Somaiya; Mumbai] Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (von
Recklinghausen's Disease is am Autosomal dominant disorder. Gene involved = 17,
gene product = Neurofibromin.
Criteria for diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1 (any two of the following
seven will do)
1) Neurofibromas (one plexiform neuroma, or
two +)
2)Cafe au lait spots (six or more measuring at least 1.5 cm in greatest
dimension)
3)Frekling in axilliary or inguinal areas
4) Two or more iris hamartomas (Lisch nodules)
5) OPTIC GLIOMA
6) Sphenoid dysplasia or thinning of cortex of long bones.
7) Immediate Relative with Neurofibromatosis Type 1
Since, optic nerve glioma is one of the diagnostic criterai for NF 1 it is the commonest. Other tumours associated with NF1 are Astrocytic tumours, neurofibrosarcomas, pheochromocytoma. Compressive myleopathy, compressive peripheral neuropathy and scoliosis also occur.
NF type 2 is also Autosomal dominant,
the defect being loacted on chromosome 22. It is characterized by
bilateral acoustic neuromas. (remember type 2 -22 chromosome) /
(type 1-17 chromosome)
15. A patient undergoing surgery suddenly develops hypotension. The monitor
shows that the end tidal carbon dioxide has decreased abruptly by 15mmHg. What
is the probable diagnosis?
1. Hypothermia.
2. Pulmonary embolism
3. Massive fluid deficit
4. Myocardial depression due to anesthetic agents.
Ans 2
16. The commonest cause of death in a patient with primary amyloidosis is
1. Renal failure
2. Cardiac involvement
3. Bleeding diathesis
4. Respiratory failure
Ans 1
17. A middle aged old man, with chronic renal failure is diagnosed to have
sputum positive pulmonary tuberculosis. His creatinine clearance is 25ml/min.
All of the following drugs need modification in doses except.
1. Isoniazid
2. Streptomycin
3. Rifampicin
4. Ethambutol.
Ans 3 Rifampin has hepatic metabolism, Isoniazid has hepatic metabolism but dose
¯ needed in mild to moderate renal failure. Streptomycin & ethambutol have
RENAL metabolism.
18. An HIV- positive patient is on anti retroviral therapy with zidovudine,
lamivudine and indinavir. He is proven to be suffering from genitor- urinary
tuberculosis. Which one of the following drugs not is given to this patient?
1. Isoniazid
2. Rifampicin
3. Pyrazinamide
4. Ethambutol
Ans 2 As Rifampin is an enzyme inducer.
19. A high amylase level in pleural fluid suggests a diagnosis of :
1. Tuberculosis
2. Malignancy
3. Rheumatoid arthritis
4. Pulmonary infarction
Ans 2. High amylase in pleural fluid may also be seen in pancreatic pleural
effusion and esophageal rupture q
20. Which of the following conditions is associated with Coomb's positive
hemolytic anaemia:
1. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura.
2. Progressive systemic sclerosis
3. Systemic lupus erythematosus.
4. Polyarteritis nodosa.
Ans 3. Other condition associated with Coombs positive hemolytic anemia is drug
Methyldopa.
21. Which of the following marker in the blood is the most reliable indicator of
recent hepatitis B- infection?
1. HBsAg
2. lgG anti - HBs
3. lgM anti - HBc
4. lgM anti - HBe
Ans 3
22. The severity of mitral stenosis is clinically best decided by:
1. Length of diastolic murmur.
2. Intensity of diastolic murmur
3. Loudness of first heart sound.
4. Split of second heart sound.
Ans 1
23. The risk of developing infective endocarditis is the least in a patient
with:
1. Small ventricular septal defect
2. Severe aortic regurgitation.
3. Severe mitral regurgitation
4. Large atrial septal defect.
Ans 4 IE is less in ASD as such, with large pressure ASD pressure difference ¯
so risk is lesser.
24. The severity of mitral regurgitation is decided by all of the following
clinical findings except:
1. Presence of mid- diastolic murmur across mitral valve.
2. Wide split of second heart sound.
3. Presence of left ventricular S3 gallop.
4. Intensity of systolic murmur across mitral valve.
Ans 1 (mid diastolic murmur heard only in MR with MS)
25. Congenital long QT syndrome can lead to:
1. Complete heart block
2. Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia.
3. Acute myocardial infarction.
4. Recurrent supraventricular tachycardia.
Ans 2
